I may be wrong, but wouldn't the only way this is possible be for either a to equal b which you can't have or for a or b to equal 0? And either way, the only way to go from 2(ab-ab)=(aa-ab) to 2=1, is to divide both sides by (ab-ab). Since ab = ab, a*b-ab is zero, so you're dividing by zero no matter what either a or b equals, which you can't do.
(a*a-ab)=0
you can't divide by zero.
BOOM FUCKING ROASTED.
as if i'm going to do that math...
I may be wrong, but wouldn't the only way this is possible be for either a to equal b which you can't have or for a or b to equal 0? And either way, the only way to go from 2(ab-ab)=(aa-ab) to 2=1, is to divide both sides by (ab-ab). Since ab = ab, a*b-ab is zero, so you're dividing by zero no matter what either a or b equals, which you can't do.
Although wrong, I did find this to be a very interesting post.
we did this in my math class