It's integer because 0.999... is equal to 1. It might get nuked because this is not an opinion but a fact.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
1/3=0,333…. (1/3)*3=3/3 3/3=1 Thus (0,333…)*3=1 Correct me if I am wrong.
by Rich_Syllabub14354 months ago
That is of course correct and the easiest way to understand why it must be true. But it's not a rigorous proof.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
Technically speaking, it 0.999 does not = 1 so this is just factually incorrect
by Anonymous4 months ago
He means 0.999999999999... to infinity =1
by Mateocummings4 months ago
Pi is exactly 3!
by Nadersonia4 months ago
So Pi is 27?
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
3! is 6, how did you get 27?
by Low-Medicine4 months ago
oops, i accidentally cubed it. You may quarter me, my bad.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
Pi is equal to the square root of g
by hvonrueden4 months ago
Is that a g as in 'gif' or in 'garage'?
by Anonymous4 months ago
Is this actually unpopular? Theres proofs for it everywhere
by Anonymous4 months ago
Well the proofs he dismantled are actually not rigorous lol. But he doesn't correctly explain why they arent. Thats why if someone asks me I always go with the rigorous but easy to understand explanation that two real numbers are equal if you can't find a real number between them.
by Anonymous4 months ago
Not an opinion, it's a fact
by Low-Medicine4 months ago
shh.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
This is tilting at windmills.
by Fickle-Syrup61354 months ago
1/3 = .333… 2/3 = .666… 3/3 = .999… = 1
by Relative_Blueberry4 months ago
Which explains why it must be so. But mathematically speaking, that isn't a rigorous proof.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
So where's the proof?
by Mrippin4 months ago
Great read! Thanks!
by Mrippin4 months ago
Sure. The missing decimal 1 exists somewhere. But it is impossible to find it. Since it is infinitely far away. At what point do we just call it one? We hardly ever need a precision past millionth. And that's not that many places over. Hell, if pi = 3 we can still do pretty well with circles. Past 3.1415927. there's no practical use for more precision until we get on the galactic scale. But even then. We absolutely don't need past 50 digits. And when we know the next digit. That 51st digit of .9 repeating is a 9. And we only need 50. We round up. 9 goes to ten and all the way down until we run out of 9s to turn into 10s. Because ultimately. The difference between .9 repeating and 1 is so pedantically tiny that it doesn't matter. Just like my pp.
by Javier454 months ago
That is no proof at all, though.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
You're right. It's just me saying that it doesn't really matter.
by Javier454 months ago
Fair point. But too many people are vehemently arguing that every proof if wrong. Always with bad math but often convincing enough that others believe them. Kinda like flat-earthers.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
There's many ways to think about it. But in the end it comes down to the fact that decimal notation has no "neat" way to display 1/3. Sure 0.333... is the representation, but it runs into the problem that there are "infinite" 3s, even though it is a simple fraction. This leads to all kind of complications but in the end, the number system for Real numbers as well as Hyperreal numbers are consistent in showing that 0.999... and 1 are actually the same number, just expressed in a different way.
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
And this kids is why we stay in school...
by Anonymous4 months ago
to learn what exactly?
by Fantastic_Baby41174 months ago
nah he's right
by Anonymous4 months ago
Is the proof using infinite geometric series valid or nah
by Anonymous4 months ago
Sokka-Haiku by Arbalest15: Is the proof using Infinite geometric Series valid or nah Remember that one time Sokka accidentally used an extra syllable in that Haiku Battle in Ba Sing Se? That was a Sokka Haiku and you just made one.
by Logical-Tree-75404 months ago
Yes, it is very valid. It is probably the most rigorous proof we know of. And it extends into the hyperreals as well.
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